DUMPS BASE
EXAM DUMPS
ZSCALER ZDTA 28% OFF Automatically For You Zscaler Digital Transformation Administrator
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1.When the Zscaler Client Connector launches, which portal does it initially interact with to understand the user's domain and identity provider (IdP)? A. Zscaler Private Access (ZPA) Portal B. Zscaler Central Authority C. Zscaler Internet Access (ZIA) Portal D. Zscaler Client Connector Portal Answer: B Explanation: When the Zscaler Client Connector launches, it initially interacts with the Zscaler Central Authority portal . This portal provides the Client Connector with information about the user's domain and the configured identity provider (IdP). This interaction allows the Client Connector to direct the user to the appropriate authentication endpoint and apply the correct access policies. The study guide emphasizes the role of the Central Authority in managing user domain information and identity provider details for authentication flows.
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2.How does Zscaler Risk360 quantify risk? A. The number of risk events is totaled by location and combined. B. A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average. C. Time to mitigate each identified risk is totaled, averaged, and tracked to show ongoing trends. D. A risk score is computed for each of the four stages of breach. Answer: B Explanation: Zscaler Risk360 quantifies risk by computing a risk score that is based on the number of remediations needed in comparison to the industry peer average. This approach allows organizations to understand their relative security posture by evaluating how many issues require remediation and benchmarking that against peers in the industry. This methodology enables prioritized risk management and provides context around the urgency and scale of remediation activities necessary to reduce risk. Unlike simply counting risk events or focusing on time to mitigate, Risk360 uses this comparative remediation-based scoring to give a comprehensive view of risk. It does not compute separate scores for each of the four breach stages but rather aggregates remediation efforts and benchmarks them to industry standards. This is confirmed by the study guide's explanation of Risk360's scoring method, highlighting the use of remediation counts compared to peers as the basis for risk scoring.
3.An administrator needs to SSL inspect all traffic but one specific URL category. The administrator decides to create two policies, one to inspect all traffic and another one
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to bypass the specific category. What is the logical sequence in which they have to appear in the list? A. Both policies are incompatible, so it is not possible to have them together. B. First the policy for the exception Category, then further down the list the policy for the generic "inspect all." C. First the policy for the generic "inspect all", then further down the list the policy for the exception Category. D. All policies both generic and specific will be evaluated so no specific order is required. Answer: B Explanation: When creating SSL inspection policies, the exception policy for the specific URL category must appear first in the policy list, followed by the more generic "inspect all" policy further down. Zscaler evaluates policies in order, so placing the exception first ensures that traffic matching that category bypasses inspection before the generic policy is applied. The study guide emphasizes the importance of policy order to ensure correct application of exceptions and general rules.
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4.Which of the following secures all IP unicast traffic? A. Secure Shell (SSH) B. Tunnel with local proxy C. Enforce PAC D. Z-Tunnel 2.0 Answer: D Explanation: Z-Tunnel 2.0is the technology designed to secure all IP unicast traffic. It establishes encrypted tunnels between clients and Zscaler cloud edges, providing secure, transparent forwarding of all IP-based traffic, beyond just HTTP/S, ensuring comprehensive protection of network communications.
5.When a SAML IDP returns an assertion containing device attributes, which Zscaler component consumes the attributes first, for policy creation? A. Enforcement node B. Zscaler SAML SP C. Mobile Admin Portal D. Zero Trust Exchange Answer: D Explanation: When a SAML Identity Provider (IdP) returns an assertion containing device attributes, these attributes are first consumed by the Zero Trust Exchange component
. This component uses the device attributes for policy creation and enforcement decisions, integrating identity and device posture information to make dynamic access decisions.
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6.Client Connector forwarding profile determines how we want to forward the traffic to the Zscaler Cloud. Assuming we have configured tunnels (GRE or IPSEC) from locations, what is the recommended combination for on-trusted and off-trusted options? A. Tunnel v2.0 for on-trusted and tunnel v2.0 for off-trusted B. None for on-trusted and none for off-trusted C. None for on-trusted and tunnel v2.0 for off-trusted D. Tunnel v2.0 for on-trusted and none for off-trusted Answer: D Explanation: When tunnels (GRE/IPSec) are already configured from trusted locations (like branch offices), the recommended setting is “Tunnel v2.0” for on-trusted networks and “None” for off-trusted. This ensures that while on a corporate network, the Zscaler Client Connector uses the pre-established tunnels, but falls back to direct or other secure methods (like VPN or ZCC tunnel) when off-trusted. This aligns with Zscaler's best practices for hybrid deployment. Reference: Zscaler Digital Transformation Study Guide C Traffic Forwarding and Deployment Models > Client Connector Forwarding Profile Settings
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7.Which of the following is unrelated to the properties of 'Trusted Networks'? A. DNS Server B. Default Gateway C. Org ID D. Network Range Answer: C Explanation: Trusted Network sin Zscaler are defined using network-specific parameters such as DNS Server, Default Gateway, and Network Range, which are used to identify known internal networks. These properties help Zscaler Client Connector recognize when a device is on a corporate network.Org ID, however, is unrelated to the network characteristics and is instead associated with tenant identification in Zscaler’s cloud infrastructure. Reference: Zscaler Digital Transformation Study Guide C Authentication and User Management > Trusted Network Configuration
8.What is the default timer in ZDX Advanced for web probes to be sent?
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A. 1 minute B. 10 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 5 minutes Answer: B Explanation: The default timer for sending web probes in ZDX Advancedis10 minutes. This means that the system automatically sends performance and availability probes every 10 minutes to monitor the health and responsiveness of web applications or services, providing ongoing metrics for user experience evaluation. The study guide specifies this default interval as a balance between timely data collection and resource optimization.
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9.What does an Endpoint refer to in an API architecture? A. An end-user device like a laptop or an OT/IoT device B. A URL providing access to a specific resource C. Zscaler public service edges D. Zscaler API gateway providing access to various components Answer: B Explanation: In API architecture, an Endpoint is defined as a URL or URI that provides access to a specific resource or service within the API. It acts as a point of interaction where clients send requests and receive responses. This is a standard definition across API implementations, including Zscaler's API framework, where each endpoint represents a distinct function or data resource accessible via the API. Option A refers to physical devices, which are not considered endpoints in API terms. Option C describes network infrastructure components but not API endpoints. Option D describes an API gateway, which manages API traffic but is not itself an endpoint. This explanation is consistent with the Zscaler Digital Transformation study guide’s section on Integration and APIs, which clarifies that API endpoints are URLs pointing to specific resources or services within the API framework.
10.Which are valid criteria for use in Access Policy Rules for ZPA? A. Group Membership, ZIA Risk Score, Domain Joined, Certificate Trust B. Username, Trusted Network Status, Password, Location C. SCIM Group, Time of Day, Client Type, Country Code D. Department, SNI, Branch Connector Group, Machine Group Answer: A Explanation: Valid criteria for Access Policy Rules in ZPA include Group Membership, ZIA Risk Score, Domain Joined, and Certificate Trust. These attributes allow granular policy
decisions based on user identity, device posture, and risk context. Options including password are invalid as passwords are not used as policy criteria; similarly, SNI and Branch Connector Group are more relevant to other controls. The study guide lists these user and device attributes explicitly as policy criteria within ZPA access policies.
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11.Does the Access Control suite include features that prevent lateral movement? A. No. Access Control Services will only control access to the Internet and cloud applications. B. Yes. Controls for segmentation and conditional access are part of the Access Control Services. C. Yes. The Cloud Firewall will detect network segments and provide conditional access. D. No. The endpoint firewall will detect network segments and steer access. Answer: B Explanation: Yes, the Access Control suite includes controls for segmentation and conditional access, which are designed to prevent lateral movement within networks. These features allow organizations to restrict access between different segments and enforce policies that limit the spread of threats or unauthorized access within internal environments.
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12.An administrator would like users to be able to use the corporate instance of a SaaS application. Which of the following allows an administrator to make that distinction? A. Out-of-band CASB B. Cloud application control C. URL filtering with SSL inspection D. Endpoint DLP Answer: B Explanation: Cloud application control is the feature that allows an administrator to distinguish and enforce policies specifically on the corporate instance of a SaaS application. This enables granular control, allowing users to access the approved corporate SaaS while restricting access to personal or unauthorized instances. Out-of-band CASB generally provides visibility but does not enforce real-time distinctions in this context. URL filtering with SSL inspection and Endpoint DLP serve different purposes, such as content inspection and endpoint data protection, respectively. The study guide explains that Cloud Application Control policies identify and enforce controls based on SaaS application instances, providing precise policy enforcement aligned with corporate SaaS usage requirements.
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13.Which type of malware is specifically used to deliver other malware? A. RAT B. Maldocs C. Downloaders D. Exploitation tool Answer: C Explanation: Downloaders are a specific type of malware whose primary purpose is to download and install other malicious software onto a victim's machine. Unlike standalone threats, downloaders typically establish initial access and then retrieve payloads like ransomware, trojans, or spyware from a command and control server. Their role in the malware chain is fundamental for multi-stage attacks. Reference: Zscaler Digital Transformation Study Guide C SSL Inspection and Threat Protection > Malware Categories
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14.During the authentication process while accessing a private web application, how is the SAML assertion delivered to the service provider? A. HTTP Redirect on the browser B. API request/response sequence C. Through the client connector D. Form POST via the browser Answer: D Explanation: During authentication to a private web application, the SAML assertion is delivered to the service provider via a Form POST through the browser. This standard SAML mechanism involves the browser receiving the assertion from the IdP and then POSTing it to the service provider to complete the authentication flow.
15.What Malware Protection setting can be selected when setting up a Malware Policy? A. Isolate B. Bypass C. Block D. Do Not Decrypt Answer: C Explanation: The valid Malware Protection setting selectable when configuring a Malware Policy in Zscaler is Block. This setting instructs the platform to block malicious files or activities detected by malware scanning engines.
Other settings like Isolate or Bypass are not standard malware policy actions in Zscaler’s malware protection configuration. The “Do Not Decrypt” option relates to SSL inspection settings, not malware policy actions. The study guide specifies “Block” as the primary malware policy action to enforce protection.
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16.A user is accessing a private application through Zscaler with SSL Inspection enabled. Which certificate will the user see on the browser session? A. No certificate, as the session is decrypted by the Service Edge B. A self-signed certificate from Zscaler C. Real Server Certificate D. Zscaler generated MITM Certificate Answer: D Explanation: When SSL Inspection is enabled and a user accesses a private application through Zscaler, the user will see a Zscaler generated MITM (Man-In-The-Middle) Certificate on their browser session. Zscaler intercepts and decrypts SSL/TLS traffic at the Service Edge and then re-encrypts it before forwarding it to the client, presenting its own certificate to maintain the security of the connection while enabling inspection. This allows Zscaler to inspect encrypted traffic for threats and policy enforcement transparently without exposing the original server’s certificate. The study guide clarifies this mechanism under SSL Inspection details.
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17.Does the Cloud Firewall detect evasion techniques that would allow applications to communicate over non-standard ports to bypass its controls? A. The Cloud Firewall includes Deep Packet Inspection, which detects protocol evasions and sends the traffic to the respective engines for inspection and handling. B. Zscaler Client Connector will prevent evasion on the endpoint in conjunction with the endpoint operating system’s firewall. C. As traffic usually is forwarded from an on-premise firewall, this firewall will handle any evasion and will make sure that the protocols are corrected. D. The Cloud Firewall includes an IPS engine, which will detect the evasion techniques and will just block the transactions as it is invalid. Answer: A Explanation: The Cloud Firewall includes Deep Packet Inspection (DPI)capabilities that detect protocol evasion techniques where applications try to communicate over nonstandard ports to bypass firewall controls. Once detected, the traffic is sent to the appropriate inspection engines for further handling and mitigation. This ensures that evasive traffic does not bypass security controls.
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18.Which of the following connects Zscaler users to the nearest Microsoft 365 servers for a better experience? A. Single DNS resolver with forwarders providing centralized results B. Private MPLS in each branch office providing connection C. Multiple distributed DNS resolvers providing local results D. Optimized TCP Scaling for maximum throughput of files Answer: C Explanation: Multiple distributed DNS resolvers providing local results connect Zscaler users to the nearest Microsoft 365 servers. This approach ensures users get localized DNS resolution, which directs them to the closest Microsoft 365 endpoint, improving performance and reducing latency. The study guide highlights the importance of distributed DNS resolution in optimizing cloud application performance for users.
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